IMPORTANT
Topic : CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide (Exam 640-802)
Type : MCQs
Please note all the Bold Options are correct.
I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
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1 - 100 of 300 MCQs
1.
Which of the following network characteristics is concerned about Mean Time
Between Failures?
a.
Cost
b.
Password
c.
Reliability
a.
Non-Availability
2.
Which of the following describes users working from home?
a.
SOHO
b.
Central Office
c.
Regional Office
3.
Which of the following topology uses a single cable to connect all devices
together?
a.
Bus
b.
Extended Star
c.
Point-to-point
d.
Token Ring
4.
Which of the following has both logical and physical ring topologies?
a.
Router
b.
FDDI
c.
Token Ring
d.
All above are correct
5. Whit
of the following Ethernet has/have both a physical and logical bus topology?
a.
10BaseT
b.
10Base2 and 10Base5
c.
10Base5 and 10BaseT
d.
10Base2, 10BaseT, and 10Base5
6.
Which topology describes the communication of devices with each other?
a.
Star
b.
Logical
c.
Layered
d.
Mesh
7. If
a person is interested in attacking our network, what generally security term
is used?
a.
Security Rules
b.
Adversary
c.
Passive
d.
Distributed
8. Looking
for such things as clear-text passwords, What class of attack monitors
unencrypted traffic?
a.
Passive
b.
Adversaries
c.
Distributed
d.
Programmed
9. Keeping
spares on hand to mitigate the threat, which type of installation threat
involves?
a.
Software
b.
Electronically
c.
Management
d.
Maintenance
10. As
what kind of attack would be classified the brute-force password attack?
a.
Reconnaissance
b.
Access
c.
Authorization
d.
DoS
11. For
what refers the term SSL?
a. denial of service
b. uninterruptible power supply
c. Secure
Sockets Layer
12. The
term OTPs refers for what?
a.
Access Control lists
b.
One Time Passwords
c.
Computer Security Institute
13. For
what the term SSL stands?
a. denial of service
b. uninterruptible power supply
c. Secure
Sockets Layer
13.
For what the term OSI stands?
a. Open
system interconnection
b. International Organization for
Standardization
c. Command-line
interface
14. Which one of the following is not provide OSI
Reference Model?
a.
Defines the process for connecting two layers
together, promoting interoperability between vendors
b.
Allows vendors to compartmentalize their
design efforts to fit a modular design, which
eases implementations and simplifies troubleshooting
c.
Separates a complex function into simpler
components
d.
Defines eight layers common to all networking
protocols
e.
Provides a teaching tool to help network
administrators understand the communication process used between networking
components
15.
Put the following in the correct order, from high to low:
(a) session, (b) presentation, (c) physical,
(d) data link, (e) network, (f) application, (g) transport.
a.
c, e, d, f, a, b, g
b.
f, a, b, g, d, e, c
c.
f, b, g, a, e, d, c
d.
f, b, a, g, e, d, c
16.
Which one of the following layer provides for hardware addressing?
a.
IPX Addresses
b.
Point-to-Point Protocol
c.
Data link
17.
How many bits in length and what is the represented numbering format of MAC
addresses?
a.
40 Bits in length and representing octal format
b.
40 Bits in length and
representing hexadecimal format
c.
20 Bits in length and representing octal format
d.
20 Bits in length and representing decimal format
18. Except
which one of the following Network layer handles all?
a.
Broadcast problems
b.
Conversion between media types
c.
Hierarchy through the use of physical addresses
d.
Splitting collision domains into
smaller ones
19. Which
of the following is used to provide reliable connections?
a.
Ready/not ready signals
b.
Sequence numbers and acknowledgments
c.
Operating System
d.
Ready/not ready signals and
windowing
20. Through
which of the following a number connection multiplexing is done
a.
Socket
b.
Software
c.
Session
d.
Internet
21. Match
the device with the OSI Reference Model at which it primarily functions.
Devices:
(1) Repeater, (2) Router, (3) NIC, and (4) Switch
Layers: (a)
Physical, (b) Data link, (c) Network, and (d) Transport
a.
1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
b.
1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-b
c.
1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
d.
1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
22. Match
the PDU name with the OSI Reference Model at which it is used.
PDU names: (1)
Data, (2) Frame, (3) Packet, (4) Bits, and (5) Segment.
Layers: (a)
Application, (b) Presentation, (c) Session, (d) Transport, (e) Network, (f)
Data link, (g) Physical
a.
1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e
b.
1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-f
c.
1-a, 2-f, 3-e, 4-f, 5-d
d.
1-g, 2-f, 3-d 4-e, 5-d
23. There
is a network with some network components physically e.g. Data-link, Router and
Hub. PC-1 wants
to send data to PC-2.
Which of the following statements is true, assuming that the layer 2 medium is Ethernet
and TCP/IP is used at layer?
a.
When PC-2 generates the frame, it puts its MAC address in the source
field and the Switch-A’s MAC address in the destination field.
b.
When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts its MAC address in the source
field and the PC-2’s MAC address in the destination field.
c.
When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts its IP address in the source
field and Router-A’s IP address in the destination field.
d.
When PC-1 generates the packet, it puts Router-A’s IP address in the
source field and PC-2’s IP address in the destination field.
e.
When Router-1 generates the frame, it
puts its MAC address as the source and PC-2’s MAC address as the destination.
24. Which
of the following media access methods are used by Gigabit Ethernet?
a.
Carrier Sense, Multiple Access, Collision Detection
b.
Collision sense, multiple access,
carrier detection
c.
Defines the MAC
d.
Multiple collision and carrier
detection
25. Which
of the following is not a
characteristic of Ethernet 802.3?
a.
Contains an LLC
b.
Media Access Control
c.
Has a type field
d.
Uses FCS to detect invalid frames
26. Which
is a valid MAC address given below?
a.
00:00:11 :GA:7A:34
b.
000:00:FFCCC:ABC12
c.
00:1F:FF:CE:DA:12
d.
AC:45:FF:EE:12:57:34:65
27. 11000001
is what in hexadecimal and decimal?
a.
B1, 193
b.
C1, 193
c.
C1, 195
d.
C1, 190
28. In
decimal what is the 11100111?
a.
230
b.
245
c.
190
d.
231
29. Match the following hexadecimal and
binary values correctly to their corresponding decimal values:
Decimal
: 14, 3, 10, 7
Hexadecimal : A, 7, E, 3
Binary : 1110, 1010, 0111, 0011
Deci Hex. Bin.
a.
3 3 001
b.
7 7 0111
c.
10 A 1010
d.
14 E 1110
e.
None of above is correct.
30. Which
of the following is a characteristic of UTP cabling?
a.
Implemented with single wire
b.
Uses two-pair wire
c.
Is susceptible to EMI and RFI
d.
Used between two office buildings
31. For
connecting a hub to a switch, which cabling would be used?
a. Straight-through
UTP
b. Crossover UTP
c. Strar
Topology
32. We
need to connect a PC to a hub, hub to a switch, switch to another switch, and
then second switch to a router. What kinds and numbers of UTP cables do we
need to make this network?
a.
Two straight-through and two crossover
b.
Three straight-through and three
crossover
c.
One straight-through and One
crossover
d.
Four Crossover
33. Which
is a connector on a Category 5 cable with 10BaseT running across it?
a. AUI
b DB-25
c. RJ-45
d. BNC
34. Collision
problems can’t be solved by which devices?
a.
Hubs
b. Routers
c. Switches and Routers
d. Switches and hubs
35. Which
is the different than three main functions of a layer 2 device?
a. Loop
removal
b. Forwarding
c. Listening
d. Learning
36. A
switch can not flood which type of traffic?
a. Multicast
b. Known
unicast
c. VoIP
d. Unknown unicast
37.
If there are Host A, Host B, with one switch and Host C, Host D are with other
switch but both switches
are connected with each other in Physical
Depiction of Transparent Bridging How many collision and
broadcast domains
are there?
a. 1, 4
b. 5, 1
c. 4, 1
d. 1, 5
38. Point
out which is the true concerning bridges given below?
a.
They switch frames in software.
b.
They support full-duplexing.
c.
They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.
d.
They do only
store-and-forward switching.
39. With
which of the following switching, the switch reads the destination MAC address
of the frame and
immediately starts
forwarding the frame.
a.
Half-Duplex
b.
Cut-through
c.
Fragment-free
d.
Full Duplex
40. Concerning
full-duplexing on a NIC which of the following is tru?
a. It can’t either send or receive frames,
but both simultaneously.
b.
It can’t be used with hubs.
c.
It can be used with 10Base10 cabling.
d.
It uses point-to-point
connections.
41. Concerning
the switch learning process which of the following option is true?
a.
Known destination MAC
addressing information is updated in the port address table.
b.
They do only store-and-forward switching.
c.
A broadcast MAC address can be learned by the switch.
d.
All above are correct
42. In
a switched network, when do we see the transmitting multiple copies of same unicast
frame ?
a.
When a port is misconfigured in half-duplex on one side and full-duplex
on the other.
b.
This is impossible.
c.
When the switching mode is configured as runtless.
d.
When an inadvertent layer 2
loop exists.
43. If
PC A, PC B, and PC C are connected with a Hub and Hub is Connected with a
Switch, Same three PCs
PC D, PC E, and PC F
are connected with Switch. Which of the following statements would be false?
a.
If PC-B sends a frame to PC-C, the frame would be dropped by the switch.
b.
If PC-B is moved to port 3
of the switch, the switch will automatically update its CAM
table when PC-A sends a frame to PC-B.
c.
If PC-C sends out a broadcast, the switch will still learn the MAC
address of the source.
d.
PC-D can set its interface to full-duplex if the switch port supports
full-duplexing.
44. What
is meant by the term SNMP?
a.
Single Network
Management Party
b.
Super Network Multi
protocol
c.
Simple Network Management Protocol
45. What
is called the term CDP?
a.
Creative Discovery Protocol
b.
Cisco Discovery Protocol
c.
Cisco Disconnected Protocol
46.
Concerning WLAN wireless transmissions, which is the following given statement
is true?
a.
A device can send only.
b.
CSMA/CD is used to detect
and transmit a signal.
c.
A wireless device will use RTS and CTS signals to avoid collisions.
d.
All are correct.
47. We
are experiencing intermittent connection and signal quality problems with our
WLAN implementation.
Which of the
following would typically not be causing this problem?
a.
Computer USB headset
b.
Cordless phone
c.
Microwave oven
d.
Rogue AP
e.
All above are wrong
48. Which
of the given below statement is not true concerning 802.11b?
a.
Maximum transmission rate
of 11 Mbps
b.
Backward compatible with
the original 802.11 standard
c.
Uses OFDM as a transmission method
d.
Is an IEEE standard
49. OFDM
is stands for which of the following?
a.
Original Frequency Division
Multiplexing
b.
Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
c.
Outgoing Frequency Division
Multiplexing
d.
Original Frequency Digital
Multiplexing
50. Which
of the following IEEE standards supports the Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
transmission method
and can transmit data at 54 Mbps using a 5 GHz frequency?
a.
802.11b
b.
802.11a
c.
802.11n
d.
802.11a and g
51. Which
of the given below Wi-Fi standards supports RC4 encryption with TKIP and PSK authentication?
a.
WAP
b.
802.1x
c.
WPA
d.
All above are correct
52. Which
of the given below will be true if we disable broadcast beaconing on an AP?
a.
No any option is correct.
b.
We need to enable MAC
address filtering to allow clients to talk to the AP.
c.
We must not define the IBSS
on each client, matching it to the configured value on the AP.
d.
We must define the SSID on each client, matching it to the configured
value on the AP.
53. Which
of the following be used by WLAN security solution uses 802.1x authentication
with AES-CCMP
for encryption?
a.
Personal WAP
b.
Personal WPA2
c.
Enterprise
d.
Enterprise
54. Which
802.11 access mode is based on Independent Basic Service Set?
a.
Ad hoc
b.
Infrastructure
c.
SOHO
d.
ISA
55. Three
APs make up the WLAN network with roaming devices. Which of the given below is
true concerning
the setup of the
three APs?
a.
They should use same SSID
values.
b.
ESA coverage should be used.
c.
They should all use the
different RF channel.
d.
They should use same RF
frequencies.
56. If
there is a problem of consistent connection drops and poor performance on WLAN SOHO network
in A three room
office. Which of the following would to be done to solve this problem?
a.
Buy an AP for each room and
setup a network for better coverage.
b.
Place the AP in a central location between the three rooms.
c.
Check the direction of the antennas on the AP and possibly upgrade the
antennas to get better signal coverage.
d.
Replace the AP with
another product.
57. How
many layers does the TCP/IP protocol stack have? Choose the correct one.
a.
2
b.
4
c.
6
d.
8
58. Which
option of the given below is wrong concerning the IP protocol and the TCP/IP
protocol stack?
a.
The Internet layer
corresponds to layer 3 of the OSI Reference Model.
b.
The IP protocol provides
for connectionless delivery of datagrams.
c.
The IP protocol provides for best effort delivery, with data recovery
capabilities.
d.
The source and destination
address in an IP header totals 64 bits.
59. How
many host bits has a Class A Address?
a.
32
b.
16
c.
8
d.
24
60. Which
is the class of Address of 191.75.39.24?
a.
C
b.
B
c.
A
d.
All above are correct
61. Which
is the class of Address of 172.16.240.256?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
None of the above
e.
All Above are correct
62. Which
of the given below is a private IP address?
a.
192.168.0.1
b.
172.32.18.19
c.
192.169.1.66
d.
10.189.289.66
63. If
we are getting reply message “request timeout” or “destination unreachable” by
using ping command
while testing
connectivity, At what layer of the OSI Reference Model does this indicate a
problem?
a.
Transport or Higher
b.
Data link or equal
c.
Network or lower
d.
All above are correct
65. For
What the term ARP stands?
a.
Additional Resolution
Protocol
b.
Address Resolution Protocol
c.
Added Resolution Protocol
d.
None of above
66. We
execute ping 127.0.0.1 on our
Windows PC and we get echo replies to the ping. What is the indication
of its behavior?
a.
We have connectivity to
other layer 3 devices.
b.
We have connectivity to
other hosts on the same segment/domain.
c.
We have correctly installed TCP/IP on your Pc.
d.
We have correctly
configured our DNS and default gateway settings.
67. We
execute the Windows ping command.
The first echo request times out, but the last three are
successful. What
would typically cause this problem?
a.
DHCP is occurring.
b.
ARP is occurring.
c.
The routers are running protocol
to find the destination.
d.
There is problem with application
layer.
68. How
many bits have a Class B address?
a.
8
b.
16
c.
20
d.
24
69. Which
of the following is Class of address of 192.168.256.135?
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
None of the above
70. Which
of the given below is a valid subnet mask value?
a.
255.0.255.255
b.
255.0.0.255
c.
255.255.254.0
d.
192.255.255.256
71. Which
of the following function is to differentiate between the network address, the
host addresses and the
directed broadcast
address?
a.
Subnet Mask
b.
Configured IP
c.
TCP/IP
d.
WLAN
72. How
many subnets do you have, if you are given a Class C network with 25 bits for
networking?
a.
1
b.
2
c.
4
d.
3
73. If
Class C network is given with a subnet mask 255.255.255.248, how many host
addresses are there on
each subnet?
a.
8
b.
6
c.
12
d.
14
74. If
there is a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. How many host
addresses would be
there on each
subnet?
a.
40
b.
62
c.
136
d.
256
75. What
type of address it would be, if you are given the addressing information
192.168.37.192/25?
a.
Subnet Mask
b.
Network
c.
Host
76. You
are given this addressing information 172.17.16.255/23. What type of it would
be?
a.
Network
b.
TCP/IP
c.
Host
77. What
type of address it could be if we give the addressing information 10.0.8.0/22?
a.
Network
b.
Directed broadcast
c.
Host
78. VLSM
is supported by which protocol?
a.
RIPv2
b.
EIGRP
c.
BGP
d.
None of these
79. How
many subnet masks do you need, if you given a Class C network, 192.168.1.0/24,
but you need one
network with 120
hosts and two networks with 60 hosts?
a.
5
b. 2
c.
3
d.
1
80. If
a Class C network is given 192.168.1.0./24. and need one network with 120 hosts
and three networks
with 60 hosts. What
subnet mask values would be used?
a.
255.255.255.128
b.
255.255.255.1/24
c.
255.255.255.0
d.
None of these
81. Class
C network 162.168.1.0/24 is given and
need three networks with 60 hosts and two networks with 30
hosts, what the
subnet masks values could be used?
a.
255.255.255.128 and 255.255.255.192
b.
255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.240
c.
255.255.255.192 and 255.255.255.224
d.
255.255.255.0 and 255.255.255.252
82. Some-one
is given this address space: 172.16.5.0/25. and need one network with 64 hosts
and two with 30
hosts. What are the
most specific subnet mask values to use?
a.
/27 and /28
b.
/26 and /27
c.
/25 and /26
d.
None of these
83. If
a Class C network is given and we have four LAN segments with the following
numbers of devices: 120,
60, 30, and 30, what
subnet masks values can be used to accommodate these segments?
a.
/20, /25, and /20
b.
/25, /26, and /27
c.
/26, /27, and /28
d.
All these are correct
84. VLSM
allows us to summarize what back to the Class A,B or C network boundary?
a.
Subnets
b.
Networks
c.
IPs
85. Which
of the given below is not an advantage of route summarization?
a.
It helps contain network problems
such as flapping routes.
b.
It supports smaller routing update
sizes.
c.
It requires less memory and
processing.
d.
It supports discontiguous subnets.
86. Which
of the below option allows creating this summarization: 10.0.0.0/7.
a.
Subnetting
b.
Networks
c.
Supernetting
d.
VLSM
87. Which
of the following are classless protocols?
a.
IGRP and EIGRP
b.
EIGRP
c.
IGRP
d.
Neither IGRP nor EIGRP
88. Except
which of the following a routing protocol that supports route
summarization must perform all?
a.
Carry the subnet mask with the
network entry.
b.
Summarize entries so that the same lowest order bits match.
c.
All of these are correct.
89. You
have the following two routes: 192.168.1.64/27 and 192.168.1.96/27. Which is
the most specific
summarized route for
these two subnets?
a. 255.255.168.0.1
b. 192.168.256.0/24
c.
192.168.1.64/26
90. We
have the following four routes: 192.168.1.32/30, 192.168.1.36/30,
192.168.1.40/30, and
192.168.1.44/30.
Which of the following will be the most specific summarized route for these
subnet?
a. 192.255.168.1/24
b.
192.168.1.32/28
c. 255.255.0.255.1
91. What
can we get the term UDP?
a.
User Datagram Protocol
b.
Urgent Datagram Protocol
c.
User Datagram Process
d.
None of these is correct
92. How
many Transport layer protocols use the TCP/IP?
a.
Four Transport Layers Protocol
b.
Two Transport Layers Protocol
c.
Three Transport Layers Protocol
d.
None of these is correct
93. What
is the main responsibility of TCP?
a.
To provide a reliable full-duplex, connection-oriented, logical service
between two devices.
b.
To provide a reliable full-duplex,
connection-oriented, Physical service between two devices.
c.
To provide a reliable Half-duplex,
connection-oriented, Physical service between two devices.
d.
All above are correct.
94. Which
three steps take place during the three-way handshake?
a.
SYN, SYN/AC, SYN
b.
ACK, AC/SYN, ACK
c.
SYN, SYN/AC, ACK
d.
All these are Correct
95. Through
which of the following mechanisms flow control is commonly implemented?
a. Windowing
e.
UDP
f.
MAC addresses
g.
Subnet mask
96. How
many types the port numbers falls?
a.
Four
b.
Three
c.
five
d.
None of these
97. What
called a PDU at the transport layer?
e.
Single Host ability
f.
UDP
g.
Frame
h.
segment
98. Except
which of the following, all are the characteristics of TCP?
a.
Connection-oriented
b.
Windowing
c.
Best-effort delivery
d.
Reordering packets
99. Which
are the three types of port numbers?
a.
Un-Known, Registered, Dynamically
Assigned
b.
Well-Known, Registered, Dynamically Assigned
c.
Well-Know, Un-Registered, Dynamically
Assigned
d.
Un-Known, Un-registered,
Dynamically Assigned.
100.
What does the term SNMP refer to?
a.
Super Network Management Protocol
b.
Simple Network Management Protocol
c.
Single Network Model Protocol
d.
Source Network Modern Protocol
[To be Continued]
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