IMPORTANT
Topic : CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate Study Guide (Exam 640-802)
Type : MCQs
Please note all the Bold Options are correct.
I am publishing all this just to spread the knowledge. I have took good care in selection of Correct options but "To Err is Human to Forgive Divine"
Please do consult your Book or Teacher when you feel any option confusing.
You may start:
200 - 300 of 300 MCQs
201. When is Auto-Secure run on a
router?
a.
Manually from Privilege EXEC mode
b.
Manually from physical Configuration
mode
c.
When the router boots up
automatically without configuration
d.
When the router boots up without a
configuration automatically or manually.
202.
Which command will copy a router configuration stored on a TFTP host to
the router’s NVRAM?
a.
transfer IOS to 192.168.10.1
b.
copy running – config|startup – config flash
c.
copy tftp startup
d.
copy running – config startup - config
203. Wich is the router Global Configuration
mode command that allows using the first address in the first
subnet of a subnetted C class network?
a.
ping 192.168.1.1.
b.
ip subnet-zero
c.
multipoint
d.
show ip interface
brief
204. Which of the following is
the correct command to create a host table on a Cisco router?
bob
ip host 172.16.10.1
host
172.16.10.1 bob
ip host bob 172.16.10.1
172.16.10.2
host
bob 172.16.10.1
205. On what configuration is done
when configuring a router-on-a-stick?
a.
Logical interfaces
b.
Major interfaces
c.
Subinterfaces
d.
All above are correct.
206. For the VLAN interface which
router-on-a-stick command defines?
a.
vlan
b.
encapsulation
c.
poison reverse
d.
split horizo
207. Which of the following two router
commands perform an overwrite process?
a.
copy running-config
startup-config
b.
copy nvram startup-config
c.
copy running-config nvram
d.
copy running-config tftp
208. By which routing command we can
delete the configuration file in NVRAM?
a.
Erase startup-config
b.
Delet startup-config
c.
Show config startup
d.
None of these is correct
209. Which two of the given below answers are
correct about these two things while we have executed the
show startup-config command and saw the
following message: “%%Non-volatile
configuration
memory is not present”.
a.
This command displays the
properties of NVRAM.
b.
This command displays the saved configuration in NVRAM.
c.
This command displays the saved passwords.
d.
The message indicates that NVRAM needs
to be reformatted.
e.
This message indicates that NVRAM
needs to be erased.
f.
This message indicates that there is nothing stored in this memory
location.
210. Which of the three of given below
will copy flash tftp command prompt when we backing up the IOS
image from flash?
a.
TFTP server IP address
b.
Configuration verification
c.
Source filename
d.
Destination filename
211. Which IOS command displays the
version of device that is running the software
a.
Show flash
b.
Dir and show version
c.
show version
d.
show startup-config
213. What refers for the term SSH?
a.
Secure Shell
b.
Super Shell
c.
Supreme Shell
d.
All above are correct
214. Which of the following IOS
command which creates RSA public and private keys to encrypt and decrypt?
a.
crypto
key generate rsa
b.
Ctrl + shift + X, 6
c.
Show-config startup
d.
None of above all
215. Which of the given is true of
CDP?
a.
multipoint.
b.
The cdp run command disables CDP on an interface.
c.
CDP sends out broadcasts every 10
seconds.
d.
CDP can be used to validate layer 2 connectivity.
216. To test only layer 3
connectivity, which router command would be used?
a.
telnet
b.
show cdp entry
c.
show cdp traffic
d.
traceroute
217. Which of the following command can
suspend a telnet session?
a.
CTRL-ALT-Delete
b.
CTRL-SHIFT-6, X
c.
Esc-F1
d.
CTRL-V
218. Which of the following two
communication protocols are used between user’s desktop running SDM and
router?
a.
HTTP
b.
SSL
c.
SSH
d.
ISA
219. Which of the given below SDM
files does not have to be in flash in order to access SDM from your
desktop?
a.
home.tar
b.
common tar
c.
home.shtml
d.
sdmconfig-xxxx.cfg
e.
None of the above
220. Which is the router command to
enable a web server on it?
a.
Ip http server
b.
https
c.
SSL
d.
TFTP
221. To pull in the router’s current
running configuration into SDM, Which button we need to click?
a.
Lab button
b.
Navigator
c.
Refresh
d.
Save
e.
Power
222. A router has an IP address of
10.10.10.1. to access SDM on it what URL we have to enter?
b.
http://10.10.10.1.0
c.
http://10.10.10.2
d.
https://255.255.255
223. What SDM wizard would we have to
run to find any security misconfiguration issues on our router?
a.
WebVPN
b.
IOS
c.
Security Audit
d.
IPS
224. Which button would we have to
push on from a Configuration screen to send changes we’ve made in
SDM to our router?
a.
Power
b.
Deliver
c.
Refresh
d.
Apply Changes
225. Which of the following two
information that provides the DHCP server?
a.
DNS
b.
TCP
c.
CRC
d.
Subnet Mask
226. To detect address conflicts for
DHCP, which two methods/tools can a router use?
a.
Ping
b.
Firewall and ACL
c.
Gratuitous ARP
d.
NAT
227. Which SDM button would be clicked
to view the interface statistics and the firewall logs?
a.
Stop
b.
Save Changes
c.
Status
d.
Monitor
228.
Which will be the command to set up a static route to 192.168.1.0/24, where the
next hop address is
192.168.2.2: ?
a. ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
192.168.2.2
b.
ip route 192.168.1.1
255.255.255.1 192.168.2.1
c.
ip route 192.168.2.2 255.255.255.2 192.168.2.2
d.
None of above is correct
229. To setup a default route, which
subnet mask would be used?
a.
0.0.0.0
b.
255.255.255.255
c.
Depends on the numbers of
workstations
d.
None of these answers
230. When the next hop specified is
the IP address of a neighboring router, what will be the default
administrative distance of a static route?
a.
2
b.
1
c.
20
d.
200
231. There is a distance vector
protocol such as RIP. we’ve entered the RIP process by executing: router rip.
On one of our router’s interfaces, we have the following
IP address: 192.168.1.65 255.255.255.192.
Which will be the command to include this interface in the
RIP routing process?
a. network
168.192.1.0.
b. network 192.168.1.2.
c. network 192.168.1.0.
d. All above are
correct
232. After every how many seconds RIP
generates routing updates?
a.
5
b.
30
c.
50
d.
120
233. How many seconds the RIP has
hold-down period?
a.
30
b.
150
c.
180
d.
280
234. Maximum how many hop count has
RIP?
a.
20
b.
15
c.
25
d.
150
235. Up to how many equal/unequal
costs RIP supports load balancing?
a.
Five, unequal-cost
b.
Eight, unequal-cost
c.
Two, equal-cost
d.
Six, equal-cost
236. Regarding RIPv2, which of the
following is true?
a.
It uses triggered updates.
b.
It uses updates.
c.
It is classified.
d.
It doesn’t support route
summarization.
237. Which is the router command used
to view which routing protocols are active on router, as well as their
characteristics and configuration?
a. show ip console.
b. show ip protocols.
c.
show ip address.
d. show ip configuration.
238. Which of the given option is
false regarding OSPF?
a.
It provides a loop-free topology.
b.
It don’t requair extra CPU processing to run the SPF algorithm
c.
It requires more memory and
processing cycles than distance vector protocols.
d.
It is complex to configure and
difficult to troubleshoot.
e.
it requires careful design to
break up the network into an appropriate hierarchical design by separating
routers into different areas, for
large network
239. What uses OSPF as metric?
a.
updates
b.
firewall
c.
cost
d.
hop count
240. Which of the following is an IP
link state protocol?
a.
TTL
b.
EIGRP
c.
OSPF
d.
RIP
241. An OSPF router ID bases on what?
a.
The lowest IP address on its
loopback, configured with lowest active interface
b.
the highest IP address on its loopback interface, if configured, or the
highest IP address on its active interfaces
c.
the highest IP address on its inactive
interfaces, configured, highest IP address on its interfaces
d.
the lowest IP address on its
active interfaces, if configured, or the lowest IP address on its loopback
interfaces
242. After how many seconds OSPF
hellos are sent on multi-access medium?
a.
15
b.
10
c.
25
d.
35
243. Regarding OSPF, which of the
given below option is true?
a.
Setting an interface priority to 10
causes a router to become a DR on the interface.
b.
If the dead interval timer doesn’t match between two OSPF routers, they
will not become neighbors.
c.
DRs are elected on updates,
multi-access, and point-to-point broadcasting.
d.
None of above is correct
244. What is the OSPF process ID?
a.
Physically significant and is the
router ID
b.
Logically significant and must
match on every router
c.
locally significant
d.
all above are wrong
245. What is the OSPF command to include all
of its interfaces in area 0?
a.
network
255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 area 0.
b.
network
255.0.255.0 255.0.255.0 area 0.
c.
network
255.255.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.
d.
network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0
246. Which code used to represent OSPF
routes while examining routes in the routing table?
a. O.
b.
A
c.
V
d.
S
247. By using the command “show ip
ospf interface” which of the
following we can’t see?
a.
The router IDs of the other routers off an interface, but not their
process IDs, which are locally significant.
b.
Dead interval timers and Helloes
c.
Properties of the router
d.
Cost of the router
248. Which of the following would not cause
this problem, if two OSPF routers can’t build neighbor
relationship?
a.
Hello and dead intervals don’t
send.
b.
MTU sizes don’t match.
c.
updates are not sent
d.
Router IDs don’t match.
249. For What EIGRP will route?
a.
Updates
b.
Physical Configuration
c.
Router’s properties
d.
IP, IPX, and AppleTalk
250. Which Algorithm uses the EIGRP to
update the local routing table?
a.
Tables in RAM
b.
AS numbers
c.
DUAL
d.
Integrated
251. After every how many seconds
EIGRP generates hellos?
a.
5
b.
20
c.
10
d.
25
252. Which of the following route is
the best path to reach a destination within the EIGRP topology and
routing tables?
a.
Successor
b.
Non-feasible successor
c.
Advertised distance
d.
Feasible network
253. What is sent to all other
neighbors advertising the same route to determine whether they have a valid
path to the destination network, if a successor route is
no longer available and no feasible successor
route exists in the topology table?
a.
Maximum transmission unit
b.
Multiple routed protocols
c.
Fast convergence
d.
Multicast query message
254. Which is the EIGREP Command to
include the interfaces with 192.168.1.1/26, 192.168.1.65/26, and
192.168.1.129/26 in the routing process?
a.
network 168.192.1.0
b.
network
192.168.1.0
c.
network 192.168.1.2
d.
network 192.168.2.1
255. Which of the following EIGRP command
to advertise specific subnets, instead of advertising
summarized classful routes, across a class boundary?
a.
no
auto-summary
b.
summary auto-no
c.
no summary-auto
d.
auto-summary-no
256. An EIGRP route will be shown as
what letter while examining the IP routing table?
a.
E
b.
R
c.
U
d.
D
257. Which of the given below EIGRP
command is to only view the successor routes?
a.
show ip properties.
b.
show
ip route.
c.
Show config
d.
Show network
258. Which EIGRP command can we use to
view both the successor and feasible successor routes?
a.
show ip igrp topology.
b.
show ip irp network.
c.
show
ip eigrp topology.
d.
show ip eigrp flow.
259. Which of the given below is not
ACL’s feature?
a.
Triggering dialup phone calls
b.
Restricting telnet access to a
router.
c.
Filtering traffic from the router
d.
Prioritizing WAN traffic
260. About ACLs, which of the
following option is true?
a.
The order of the statements is
automatic.
b.
Triggering dialup lines
c.
Packet is stored, if no match is
found.
d.
You can delete a specific statement in a named list.
261. On router’s interface which
command activates an IP ACL?
a.
Link Down
b.
ip access-group
c.
access-group
d.
access-class
262. which wildcard mask value is
correct to match on every bit position?
a.
0.0.0.0
b.
0.1.0.1
c.
0.0.0.1
d.
1.0.0.0
263. What type of ACL will be the wildcard
mask value for the subnet mast of 255.255.248.0?
a.
1.1.755.1
b.
0.1.755.0
c.
1.1.755
d.
1.1.755.755
264. Which of the following can match
on a standard IP ACL?
a.
IP protocol information
b.
IP protocol
c.
Destination address
d.
None of the above
265. Which is standard IP ACL command
to permit traffic from 192.168.1.0/24, using a list number of 10?
a.
access-list 10 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255.
b.
access-list 10 permit 168.168.1.0 1.0.0.255.
c.
access-list 10 permit 168192.0.1 0.1.0.255.
d.
None of above all
266. Which is
the extended IP ACL command to permit all ICMP traffic from 172.16.0.0/16 to
17.23.17.0.0/17, while using a list number of 101?
a.
access-list 101 permit icmp
172.16.0.1 0.1.255.255
172.17.0.1 0.1.127.255
b.
access-list 101 permit icmp
172.16.1.0 1.0.255.255
172.17.1.0 1.0.127.255
c. access-list 101 permit
icmp 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.17.0.0
0.0.127.255
d.
access-list 101 permit icmp
17.23.17.0.0/17 1.1.255.255
172.17.1.1 1.1.127.255
267. Enter the router command to
activate an ACL with a name of test inbound on an interface:__________.
a.
ip access-group
b.
ip
access-group autosec_firewall_acl in
c.
ip access-group ACL_#
in|out.
d.
ip access-group test in.
268. Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the which device
as possible?
a.
Source
b.
Destination
269.
Which of the given below is a
private address?
a.
192.169.1.0
b.
255.255.255.255
c.
168.192.256.0
d.
172.16.255.89
270.
For which of the following reasons may needed to use address translation
a.
ISP didn’t assign enough private addresses,
we have to use public addressing.
b.
ISP is changed and new won’t
support private addresses while private address is being used.
c.
You need to access the Internet
for help.
d.
You are merging two companies that use the same address space.
271.
Which of the following translates one (and only one) IP address to
another?
a.
NAT
b.
PAT and PAR
c.
PAT and NAT
d.
All above are correct
272.
Which of the given below is a public
IP address associated with an inside device?
a.
inside global IP address
b.
outside local server
c.
outside global subnet mask
d.
outside local IP address
273.
To define local addresses that statically
translated to global addresses, which command should we use?
a.
ip nat inside source static
b.
subnet nat inside
c.
ip access group test in
d.
None of above is correct
274.
Which parameter must be specified to perform PAT while configuring the
ip nat inside source command?
a.
NAT
b.
overload
c.
PAT
d.
port
275.
Which of the following occurs first while doing a local-to-global
translation?
a.
Policy routing
b.
outside-to-inside NAT rules
c.
Inbound ACL
d.
outbound rate limiting policies
276.
How many bits large are the IPv6
addresses?
a. 64 bits
b. 8 bits
c. 16 bits
d.
128 bits
277.
Which two of the following are valid IPv6 unicast addresses?
a.
200::576::78::
b.
2000::57
c.
2000:FFEE:7878:1111:1:2:7:E
d.
2001::EEFF:1:2:7
278.
Which of the given below is best describes an anycast address?
a.
many-to-one
b.
one-to-many
c.
dual interface
d.
one-to-nearest
279.
Which of the given list is a global address?
a.
1918:
10.0.0.0/8,
b.
10.0.0.0/8
c.
All above are correct
d.
None
of the above
280.
By which of the following a router is allowed to forward a DHCP request
to a remote DHCP server?
a.
overload
b.
stateless autoconfiguration
c.
show ip eigrp topology
d.
IP Helper
281.
Which is the true regarding RIPng
from the given below list?
a.
Uses port 520
b.
Uses a multicast address of FF02::9
c.
Uses 4 to 6 share routing
information with neighboring routers
d.
Uses TCP as a transport
282.
Which IPv6 command must be entered first on a Cisco router?
a.
router ipv6-routing
b.
ipv6 support-disable
c.
ipv6 unicast-routing
d.
ipv6 support enable
283.
Which of the following router command that globally enables RIPng, where
the RIPng process?
a.
Ip name-server
b. ipv6 router rip RP1.
c.
ipv6 host
d.
show ipv6 route rip
284.
On an interface, which router command enables RIPng??
a.
ipv6 rip tag enable
b.
server
c.
ipv6 router rip RPI
d.
ripng disable tag
285. Which of the following device
provides clocking and synchronization on a synchronous serial interface on a router
connected to a DTE cable?
a.
The server
b.
LAN Card
c.
CSU/DSU
d.
Hub/switch
286.
WAN typically operates at what layer/layers within the OSI Reference
model?
a.
Logical only
b.
Destination
c.
Physical and data link
d.
All above are correct
287.
Which frame field is different than Cisco’s HDLC and ISO HDLC?
a.
database
b.
server
c.
Flag
d.
Type
288.
What is the default encapsulation on a synchronous serial interface?
a.
HDLC
b.
PPP
c.
LCP
d.
NCP
289.
Which of following cant not perform the PPP?
a.
authentication
b.
compression
c.
quality of service
d.
All answers are correct
290.
What negotiates the data link and network layer protocols that traverse
a PPP connection?
a.
PPP
b.
NCP
c.
HDLC
d.
PAT
291.
What state indicates the successful negotiation of a network layer
protocol when we have configures
PPP on an interface
and use to show interface command?
a.
LMI
b.
AES
c.
NCP
d.
OPEN
292.
Regarding CHAP, Which of the given statement is false?
a.
It sends an encrypted password.
b.
It is more secure than PAP.
c.
It uses a three-way handshake.
d.
It sends a challenge.
293.
VPN technology implements confidentiality, which is the following?
a.
CSD/DSU
b.
AES
c.
HDLC
d.
OSPF
294.
Which are the two of following components of Easy VPN?
a.
Server
b.
Router
c.
Hub
d.
Remote
295. You have a total of five routers.
How many dedicated circuits are required to fully mesh the network, where every
router needs how many interfaces?
a.
10, 10
b.
5,
10
c.
10, 5
d.
10, 4
296.
What defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
a.
DHCP
b.
NVRAM
c.
LMI
d.
Router
297.
What the address of a Frame Relay VC is called?
a.
data link layer identifier
b.
data layer connection index
c.
link connection index
d.
data link connection identifier
298.
When a carrier experiences congestion, which bit it marks in the header
of the Relay frame?
a.
DLCI
b.
ATM
c.
BECN
d.
FECN
299.
After every how many seconds Cisco routers generate LMI enquiries and a
full status update?
a.
10, 60
b.
15, 25
c.
20 60
d.
15, 60
300. Which is the router command to
have the serial interface use a frame encapsulation type compatible with a
non-Cisco router?
a.
Show configuration
b.
encapsulation frame-relay ietf
c.
copy running-config. tftp
d.
show startup config.
301.
Which of the following topologies in NBMA environments don’t have
problems with split horizon?
a.
Partially meshed
b.
Fully meshed
c.
LMI type
d.
DTE
